Originally Posted by CloakNNNdagger
Sorry, no. But a high ankle sprain is a severe ankle sprain by definition. He didn't go for immediate surgery, so we can pretty much rule out that there was a displaced fracture associated with it. Being in a boot at this time would not distinguish the remaining two possibilities of stable vs. unstable ankle (+ or - undisplaced fracture). Unless actual detailed truthful reporting is available or x-rays, at this point no way to tell the difference, since both may be treated conservatively initially.
EDIT: I should specify that the terms "stable vs. unstable" above refers to the extent of separation of the tibia from the fibula due to tear of the connecting ligaments. Any ankle sprain in the loose sense lends itself to some "instability."
Doc, is the fact that he finished that afternoon's walkthrough any indication as to the severity of his injury? Assuming that letting him do that was the right medical decision at the time.