Originally Posted by 2012Champs
Do you also have to prove that there was a financial impact to the defamation? I thought I heard t hat somewhere but Im not sure
Kind of. Because this involves his occupation it likely falls within defamation per se laws where malice need not be proved and damages are presumed. Having said that, if you just rely on the presumption you are likely to get an award of $1 or something similar. If you want anything other than that you better prove it. If it is not deemed defamation per se then any damages must be proved.